while there are hpsgrad posts prior to where i start quoting, i believe that this goes back far enough to encapsulate the majority of them.<BR><BR><I>hpsgrad:<BR><BR>"If we are really worried about justice, the intent of the founders, and Lockean theory, we should ask ourselves: does handling these cases via the civil courts effectively privilege the rights of copyright holders over the rights of those they accuse of infringing on their rights?"</I><BR>assuming that you're referring to the differing standard of proof between civil and criminal, one need only examine the reasons for the criminal standard. the criminal standard is intended to protect the people from governmental abuse. since civil trials are between private parties, there is no need for such protection or reason to advantage either party.<BR><BR><I>"Ruddy will probably choose this moment to point out to me that different types of property have different characteristics and are therefore governed by different rules (<B>a claim which I've accepted repeatedly</B>)"</I><BR>while this true, it is equally true that you keep harping on the differences as if the inconsistencies somehow preove that intellectual properties are not properties.<BR><BR><I>"That doesn't explain why it is that 'intellectual property' deserves this statutory damages protection, but other sorts don't"</I><BR>even if this were true (it's not, statutory damages are available in a great many circumstances concerning all sorts of property), the reasoning behind statutory damages is incredibly simple and has been presented many times before. damages with respect to intellectual properties can be incredibly difficult to prove.<BR><BR><I>"Perhaps, but then we should again ask: if the results of the civil trial are so much less severe than the results of a criminal trial (ruddy has claimed this in this thread; this justifies the lower standards of evidence, etc., in civil trials), how can it be that this is a 'serious deterrent'?"</I><BR>if you don't believe ruddy, ask yourself which the big bad content providers would prefer civil or criminal copyright statutes? which would jtr and jt have preferred (current criminal statutes could have added a year of imprisonment to the fines they received in the civil trial)? as to the question of whether civil trials can be a serious deterent, are you seriously suggesting that a potential multimillion dollar judgment would not deter some to refrain from the activity that resulted in that judgment?<BR><BR><I>"Again, why not use criminal 'deterrents', if you're going for deterrent effect in the first place?"</I><BR>throw them all in jail? why?<BR><BR><BR><I>"'Intellectual property' is the only sort of 'property' that I'm aware of which we protect primarily via civil actions rather than criminal ones"</I><BR>simply incorrect. the most obvious example to the contrary is land dealings. only an idiot would argue that real estate is not property, yet the vast majority of protections and dealings are done through the civil courts. additionally, since you've acknowledged that different classes of property are governed by different rules, what is the point of this?<BR><BR><I>"It's the only sort of 'property' where no actual evidence of harm is required in order to obtain a judgment against someone for infringing"</I><BR>simply incorrect. to use your example of trespass, is evidence of harm required for a judgement against a trespasser? additionally, since you've acknowledged that different classes of property are governed by different rules, what is the point of this?<BR><BR><I>"Whatever the priorities of society, these features make 'intellectual property' unique as property"</I><BR>all classes of property are unique, that is why they are different classes. additionally, since you've acknowledged that different classes of property are governed by different rules, what is the point of this?<BR><BR><I>"For example, if this stuff is property, and copyright infringement is an infringement on property rights, why is theft the best classification of that infringement?"</I><BR>because it fits the definition, the taking of another's property without the owner's permission.<BR><BR><I>"The short and simple answer is that I repeat questions when I haven't gotten a satisfactory answer to them"</I><BR>just because you choose to dismiss them out of hand, does not make the unsatisfactory.<BR><BR><I>"If you want to discuss particular questions, or point out where a question has been answered, I'll do my best to explain why the answer given wasn't satisfactory, or apologize for asking a question already answered"</I><BR>considering the number of times that i've attempted to do just that, i can only say, <B>bullshit</B>.<BR><BR><I>"There's always someone claiming 'it's property so that law is good'"</I><BR>feel free to point out where such an assertion has ever been made.<BR><BR><I>"I've not only demonstrated that I understand the 'works are property' position"</I><BR>again, bullshit.<BR><BR><I>"but I've even apologized to those whose positions I've mischaracterized"</I><BR>more bullshit.<BR><BR><BR><I>"Instead, you made up a category of people you call 'anti-copyright' and dumped me in it along with all the people who want to abolish copyright protections entirely"</I><BR>my that's an awfully black pot. considering this sinister mythological 'works are property' group that you constantly talk about and dump other folks in, it seems that it would take quite a bit of nerve to voice such a complaint. btw, how does the statement <I>"It may surprise some anticopyrighters to know that legal theory in the US holds the potential loss of one's freedom as a much more severe punishment than the mere payment of damages"</I> dump you into the 'anti-copyright' category?<BR><BR><I>"Better yet, would you admit that this is different from the general case of problems arising from an imbalance of resources, because the imbalance is codified into the law?"</I><BR>the imbalance of resources arises from the simple fact that one party has more resources than the other. if i sue your average college student, i probably have greater resource. if i sue bershire hathaway, they most certainly have greater resources.<BR><BR><I>"After all, I'm not aware of any other sort of property that allows people to file civil suits to recover economic damages which they do not have to present evidence of"</I><BR>and, of course, if you are not aware of it, it must not exist. statutory damages are rather common, as are judgments in civil suits with no presentation of evidence concerning economic harm. btw, who claimed that the suits are meant (only) to recover economic harm? additionally, since you've acknowledged that different classes of property are governed by different rules, what is the point of this?<BR><BR><I>"My point is that the law makes civil suits far, far more appealing to copyright holders for addressing infringements of their rights than for owners of other sorts of property to address their rights"</I><BR>seems that criminal prosecution and prison time would be more appealing to copyright holders for the deterrent value.<BR><BR><I>"Again, it's not my fault you appear unable to understand the difference between someone who disagrees with your position, and someone who doesn't understand it"</I><BR>if you understand the positions of others so well, why do you keep asking the same questions about those positions over and over again (even when it has been answered each time)?<BR><BR><BR><I>"Nothing gets taken from a copyright holder when their work is copied, except the possibility of a sale"</I><BR>are "take" and "take from" the same thing? nope. is to take the act of acquiring or gaining possession? yep.<BR><BR><BR><I>"Someone who copies a work without permission hasn't taken the work from the owner"</I><BR>according to <B>your own</B> definition of theft, does it specify taken from? nope, just taking. what is taking? the act of acquiring or gaining possession. does someone who copies a work (within the context of your hypothetical) acquire or gain possession of a copy of the work?<BR><BR><I>"We also all agree that the copyright is a property"</I><BR>considering the the law specifically states that it is why would anyone think otherwise?<BR><BR><I>"Furthermore, not all of those fixed copies are the property of the copyright holder"</I><BR>the material object in which the work is fixed is not the property of the copyright holder. the work that is fixed in the material object is the property of the copyright holder.<BR><BR><I>"So, what's been taken from the copyright holder?"</I><BR>a copy of the work.<BR><BR><I>"All of the property that they had before the infringement is still in their posession after the infringement"</I><BR>one of the unique attributes of intellectual properties is that they are intangible. as such, multiple instances can exist simultaneously.<BR><BR><I>"So, I'm skeptical that any real taking has occurred here"</I><BR>only because you've equated taking and taking from, as well as requiring intellectual properties act as tangible properties would.<BR><BR><I>"Then surely the expiration of the copyright term represents a far, far more significant taking from the copyright holder"</I><BR>nope, it would simply represent a removal of rights.<BR><BR><I>"That taking is also completely uncompensated (in contrast to, e.g. eminent domain takings by the government of real property)"</I><BR>this is not a taking of property, it is a dissolution of property. when the rights regarding copyrights are removed, the work is simply no longer property.<BR><BR><I>"if you're going to hold that the first taking is an act of injustice, immoral according to Locke's theory of property, I'd ask you to explain why the second taking is not also an act of injustice and immoral"</I><BR>the government agrees to protect copyrighted works by giving the creator a set of rights. it does this to encourage the creation of more works. this set of rights gives the creator legal right to and control over the works. having legal right to and legal control over the works makes them property. the government only offers this protection for a given time, after which the rights are abrogated. there is no taking of property. can one use locke to lend a moral justification to the governments creation of intellectual properties? yep. copyrighted works are examples of applied industry. if you find these incongruous, i don't see how you can claim to understand ruddy's position.<BR><BR><I>"Ruddy has repeatedly asked what economic harm could result from a work remaining in copyright (apparently there isn't any; at least none of the examples I provided seemed to meet his standards), and has repeatedly said that there's no legitimate creative acts that are hampered by a work's being in copyright"</I><BR>while i'm not a scholar of the collected works of ruddy, i have a hard time believing your assertions. seems that your one anecdote concerning economic harm has been acknowledged, virtually universally, and possible solutions have been proffered (and dismissed by you). orphaned works do represent potential economic harm. however, the extent of that harm has been questioned, particularly with respect to the net benefit of potential solutions. can't say that i recall them stating (even once) no creative acts are hampered by copyright.<BR><BR><I>"...and that there are no economic benefits to works being in the public domain..."</I><BR>how does, copyrighted works being more valuable, equate to, there not being economic benefits to the public domain?<BR><BR><I>"...it seems that the term limit mandated by the US constitution is clearly immoral"</I><BR>only if you misrepresent and combine several disparate assertions.<BR><BR><I>"I am aware of no non-revokable procedure for releasing a work from copyright protection"</I><BR>assign the copyright to the public domain, wait forty years (there is a five year period starting after thirty five years in which the assignment can be withdrawn), done.<BR><BR><I>"that is, a copyright holder may declare a work to be in the public domain, but it's not at all clear what legal status such a declaration might have, since there is no legislation on the matter, nor have any cases come to trial on the matter, so far as I'm aware"</I><BR>because hux read on wikipedia that a single source claimed that the public domain isn't a legally sanctioned entity? while the public domain isn't a legally sanctioned entity, it is legally recognized.<BR><BR><I>"Anyway, ruddy's position is that copyright is a property right which derives from the labor exerted to create the work"</I><BR>property is derived from the law. the exertion of labor justifies the law.<BR><BR><BR><I>"I NEVER MEANT TO IMPLY ANYTHING ABOUT HOW RECENTLY CRIMINAL PENALTIES ENTERED COPYRIGHT LAW. IT'S IRRELEVANT TO THE POINT I WAS MAKING."</I><BR>one has to wonder why you made a point of specifying 27 years, if how recently criminal penalties entered copyright law is irrelevant to you point?<BR><BR><I>"Since you clearly don't think that I'm being honest in this thread, I'm going to leave it here"</I><BR>an excellent comment on your honesty.